Nursing Elites

1. Which task can the RN delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Take a history on a newly admitted client
• B. Adjust the rate of a gastric tube feeding
• C. Check the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client
• D. Check on a client receiving chemotherapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Checking the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. This task is routine and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or critical decision-making. Options A, B, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of training and critical thinking beyond the scope of a UAP. Taking a history, adjusting tube feeding rates, and monitoring a client receiving chemotherapy are responsibilities that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers who have the necessary skills and training.

2. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
• C. Decrease in blood pressure
• D. Increase in respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.

3. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?

• A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
• B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
• C. I have been making plans for the future.
• D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.

4. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent falls?

• A. Keep the client's bed in the lowest position.
• B. Encourage the client to wear non-slip socks.
• C. Place a fall risk sign on the client's door.
• D. Use a gait belt when ambulating the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Keeping the client's bed in the lowest position is an essential measure to prevent falls. Lowering the bed reduces the risk of injury if the client falls out of bed by decreasing the distance of the fall. Encouraging the client to wear non-slip socks (Choice B) may help prevent slips on smooth surfaces but does not address the risk of falls in other scenarios. Placing a fall risk sign on the client's door (Choice C) alone does not actively prevent falls but serves as a warning. Using a gait belt when ambulating the client (Choice D) is important for assisting with mobility but does not directly address fall prevention in the client's environment.

5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

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