Nursing Elites

1. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

2. A client reports pain after medication administration. What is the next best step for the nurse?

• A. Reassess the client’s pain
• B. Increase the pain medication dose
• C. Apply a cold compress
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to reassess the client’s pain. Reassessment is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial intervention. By reassessing, the nurse can determine if the current pain management plan is adequate or if further interventions are required. Increasing the pain medication dose without reassessment can lead to overmedication and potential adverse effects. Applying a cold compress may not address the underlying cause of the pain and should be based on a proper assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be considered if the reassessment indicates a need for further evaluation or intervention beyond the nurse's scope of practice.

3. A client with diabetes exhibits a blood sugar of 350 mg/dL. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Provide a carbohydrate-controlled snack
• C. Encourage physical activity
• D. Recheck the blood sugar

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with diabetes presenting with a blood sugar level of 350 mg/dL, the best action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. High blood sugar levels can lead to complications like diabetic ketoacidosis, making prompt insulin administration crucial to lower the blood glucose level. Providing a carbohydrate-controlled snack would be inappropriate as it may further elevate blood sugar levels. Encouraging physical activity is not advisable when the blood sugar is significantly high, as exercise can raise blood sugar levels. Rechecking the blood sugar is necessary after administering insulin to monitor the response to treatment.

4. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports a sudden onset of severe back pain. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer pain medication as prescribed
• B. Assess the pain's nature and intensity
• C. Encourage the client to rest and apply a hot pack
• D. Notify the physician immediately

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to assess the nature and intensity of the pain. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the underlying cause of the pain, whether it is related to the chemotherapy or another issue. Understanding the pain's characteristics will guide the nurse in implementing appropriate interventions and seeking timely medical assistance if needed. Administering pain medication without a thorough assessment may mask important symptoms and delay necessary treatment. Encouraging rest and hot pack application may be appropriate interventions but should come after assessing the pain. Notifying the physician immediately can be important but should follow the initial assessment to provide comprehensive information to the healthcare provider.

5. A client complains of pain at the IV site. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the site is warm, red, and swollen. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Phlebitis
• B. Infiltration
• C. Allergic reaction
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Phlebitis. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, often caused by irritation from an IV catheter, resulting in warmth, redness, and swelling at the site. Infiltration (choice B) refers to the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and pallor, not redness and warmth like in the scenario described. An allergic reaction (choice C) would present with itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, rather than localized warmth, redness, and swelling. Fluid overload (choice D) typically manifests as generalized edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain, not localized symptoms at the IV site.

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