HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 50
- B. 67
- C. 57
- D. 70
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.
2. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?
- A. Teach deep breathing exercises
- B. Provide a quiet environment
- C. Administer anxiolytic medication as prescribed
- D. Engage the client in conversation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.
3. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent wound drainage. Previously, the wound was inflamed and tender but without drainage. Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Determine if the drainage has an unpleasant odor.
- B. Monitor the client's white blood cell count (WBC).
- C. Request a culture and sensitivity of the wound.
- D. Cleanse the wound with a sterile saline solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Requesting a culture and sensitivity of the wound is the most crucial action in this scenario. This will help identify the specific organism causing the infection and determine its sensitivity to antibiotics, guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Option A is less critical as odor alone may not provide enough information about the type of infection. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count (WBC) in option B is important but not as immediate as obtaining a wound culture. Cleansing the wound with a sterile saline solution in option D is necessary but should follow after obtaining the culture results to ensure proper treatment.
4. A client who fell 20 feet from the roof of his home has multiple injuries, including a right pneumothorax. Chest tubes were inserted in the emergency department prior to his transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse observes that the suction control chamber is bubbling at the -10 cm H20 mark, with fluctuation in the water seal, and over the past hour, 75 mL of bright red blood is measured in the collection chamber. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase wall suction to eliminate fluctuation in the water seal.
- B. Give blood from the collection chamber as autotransfusion.
- C. Add sterile water to the suction control chamber.
- D. Manipulate blood in tubing to drain into chamber.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement is to add sterile water to the suction control chamber. This action helps maintain the proper functioning of the chest tube system by regulating the negative pressure. Increasing wall suction is not recommended as it could lead to excessive negative pressure. Giving blood from the collection chamber as autotransfusion is inappropriate and poses a risk of complications such as air embolism. Manipulating blood in the tubing is also unsafe as it could introduce air into the system, increasing the risk of complications for the client.
5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach
- B. Monitor sodium intake
- C. Report any signs of weight gain
- D. Avoid excessive caffeine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sodium levels can affect lithium levels in the body, so it is crucial to monitor sodium intake to prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic levels. Lithium is typically taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption, making choice A more accurate than the original 'Take the medication with food.' Reporting weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, is important for monitoring side effects but is not as critical as ensuring proper lithium levels through sodium intake monitoring. Choice D, avoiding excessive caffeine intake, is not a priority concern directly related to lithium therapy.
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