Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important aspect of colostomy care to teach the client?

• A. Change the colostomy bag only when necessary
• B. Eat a low-residue diet
• C. Assess the stoma for color and swelling
• D. Irrigate the colostomy only if advised by a healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important aspect of colostomy care to teach the client is to assess the stoma for color and swelling. This is crucial as it ensures early detection of complications such as ischemia or infection. Changing the colostomy bag only when necessary is more appropriate than doing it daily, as it prevents unnecessary changes that may irritate the skin. While eating a low-residue diet is beneficial, it is not the most crucial aspect to teach. Irrigating the colostomy should only be done if advised by a healthcare provider, as it is not a routine procedure for all clients with a colostomy.

2. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?

• A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
• B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
• C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
• D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Blood pH of 7.30
• C. Positive urine ketones
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?

• A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
• B. It can cause drowsiness
• C. It should be taken with meals
• D. Completing the full course is crucial

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.

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