HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle
- D. Abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Report any increase in suicidal thoughts.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
- D. Expect improvement within 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.
4. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
- A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
- B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
- C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
- D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with an IV infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Elevate the affected arm
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion. Pain and swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires immediate discontinuation of the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage or infection. Slowing the rate of infusion, applying a warm compress, or elevating the affected arm would not address the underlying issue of infiltration or phlebitis and could potentially worsen the condition by allowing more fluid to infiltrate the tissues.
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