HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle
- D. Abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
3. During a severe asthma exacerbation in a client, what is the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer a rescue inhaler immediately
- B. Prepare for intubation
- C. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a severe asthma exacerbation, the nurse's priority is to administer a rescue inhaler immediately. This action helps open the airways and improve breathing, which is crucial in managing the exacerbation. Choice B, preparing for intubation, would be considered if the client's condition deteriorates and they are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation even after using the rescue inhaler. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice C) may not be appropriate during a severe exacerbation as the client may struggle to breathe. While monitoring oxygen saturation levels (Choice D) is important, the immediate administration of a rescue inhaler takes precedence to address the acute breathing difficulty.
4. A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.
5. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
- A. Heparin secretion
- B. Transport oxygen
- C. Phagocytotic action
- D. Antibody formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.
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