Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Dorsogluteal muscle
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle
• D. Abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.

2. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
• C. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
• D. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.

3. A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says, 'Mine.' According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?

• A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
• B. Industry vs. Inferiority
• C. Initiative vs. Guilt
• D. Trust vs. Mistrust

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The toddler's behavior of asserting possession ('Mine') reflects a desire for independence, aligning with Erikson's stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. This stage, typical for toddlers aged 1-3 years, focuses on developing a sense of control and independence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Industry vs. Inferiority relates to middle childhood, Initiative vs. Guilt pertains to preschoolers, and Trust vs. Mistrust is associated with infancy.

4. The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?

• A. Explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery
• B. Wait for the client to request to walk
• C. Tell the client that walking is necessary for discharge
• D. Offer pain medication before walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.

5. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

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