Nursing Elites

1. A RN is preparing the physical environment to interview a new client for admission to the mental health unit. Which environmental setting facilitates the best outcome of the interview?

• A. Dim the lights in the room to help the patient feel calm.
• B. Sit within two feet of the client to enhance the level of safety and security.
• C. Reduce the noise level in the room by turning off the television and radio.
• D. Position a table between the client and the RN for extra personal space.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reducing the noise level in the room by turning off the television and radio is the best choice among the options provided. This setting helps create a calm and focused environment, which facilitates better communication and assessment during the interview. Dimming the lights might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially hinder communication. Sitting too close or placing a table between the client and the RN may affect the client's comfort level and openness during the interview.

2. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?

• A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
• C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.

3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

4. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

5. A female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is describing her obsessions and compulsions and asks the nurse why these make her feel safer. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Compulsions relieve anxiety
• B. Anxiety is the key reason for OCD
• C. Obsessions cause compulsions
• D. Obsessive thoughts are linked to levels of neurochemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Obsessions do not cause compulsions; rather, obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, images, or urges that trigger intensely distressing feelings, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because compulsions are behaviors or mental acts aimed at reducing distress or preventing a dreaded event or situation. Choice B is incorrect because while anxiety is often a significant component of OCD, it is not the only reason for the disorder. Choice D is incorrect because obsessive thoughts are not solely linked to levels of neurochemicals but are more complex and multifactorial.

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