a 6 month old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure which observation by the practical nurse pn warrants immediat
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

2. Phenytoin is prescribed for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which statement by the client needs to be clarified by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antacids should not be taken with phenytoin as they can decrease its effects. Taking antacids with phenytoin is not recommended. Choice A is correct; pink discoloration of urine can occur with phenytoin use. Choice B is also correct; abruptly stopping phenytoin can lead to seizures. Choice C is correct; monitoring glucose levels is important as phenytoin can increase glucose levels. Therefore, the statement about using antacids with phenytoin needs clarification.

3. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin, it is crucial to instruct them to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Saxagliptin can lead to pancreatitis as a side effect, making it essential for clients to be vigilant about recognizing and reporting any related symptoms promptly for timely intervention and management. Choice B is incorrect because saxagliptin can be taken with or without meals. Choice C is not specifically associated with saxagliptin use. Choice D is incorrect as heart failure is not a common side effect of saxagliptin.

5. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.

Similar Questions

Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
A client with angina pectoris has been prescribed nitroglycerin tablets prn for chest pain. Which statement by the client causes the practical nurse (PN) to clarify instructions for this client?
A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response?
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses