Nursing Elites

1. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Apical heart rate of 60 beats/min
• B. Sweating across the forehead
• C. Poor sucking effort
• D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?

• A. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina
• B. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer
• C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with diabetes
• D. A 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.

4. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
• B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
• C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
• D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.

5. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients prescribed fluoxetine should not stop taking the medication once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as directed by the healthcare provider to prevent relapse or potential worsening of symptoms. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may not effectively manage the condition. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to follow the healthcare provider's guidance regarding the duration of treatment with fluoxetine.

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