a 46 year old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days she has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and a 46 year old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days she has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

2. A child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. What is the priority need that must be included in the nursing plan of care for this child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rest. When a child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia, the priority need in the nursing plan of care is to ensure adequate rest. Rest is crucial as it allows the child's body to fight the infection and recover. Choice B, Exercise, would not be appropriate as the child needs rest to conserve energy and promote healing. Choice C, Nutrition, is important for overall health but may not be the immediate priority when the child is acutely ill with pneumonia. Choice D, Elimination, is important but is not the priority need in this scenario compared to ensuring rest to aid recovery from pneumonia.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has just been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most important for the LPN/LVN to report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical finding that should be reported immediately in a client with acute pancreatitis as it may indicate severe complications such as hemorrhage or shock. While elevated serum lipase level, severe abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting are common manifestations of acute pancreatitis, hypotension is a more urgent sign requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Hypotension can be a sign of significant fluid loss, hemorrhage, or sepsis, which are potentially life-threatening conditions that need prompt intervention. Elevated serum lipase levels, severe abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting are important in the assessment of pancreatitis but do not indicate the same level of immediate danger as hypotension does.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing in COPD patients. While administering bronchodilator therapy as prescribed (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice B) can be beneficial but do not take precedence over positioning for improved respiratory function. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) can be considered after the initial positioning to relieve respiratory distress, making it a later intervention.

5. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.

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