Nursing Elites

1. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

2. The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?

• A. The voices are telling me to kill the next person I see.
• B. The fire is burning my skin away right now.
• C. The snakes on the wall are going to eat me.
• D. The nurse at night is trying to poison me with pills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Believing that the nurse is trying to poison him with pills is a clear indication of delusional paranoia, a common symptom in paranoid schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to paranoid delusions and are more indicative of hallucinations or other forms of delusions not specific to paranoia.

3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with a mental illness. The client asks, 'Will I be able to live a normal life?' What is the best response for the nurse to provide?

• A. Yes, you will be able to live a normal life.
• B. Many people with mental illness lead full and productive lives.
• C. It will depend on your treatment and the choices you make.
• D. There is no normal; everyone is unique in their own way.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to provide the client with hope while acknowledging the importance of their treatment and choices. Choice C addresses the client's concern by highlighting the impact of their treatment and personal choices on their future. It encourages personal responsibility and active participation in their recovery. Choices A and B may sound reassuring, but they do not empower the client to take an active role in their well-being. Choice D, while promoting individuality, does not directly address the client's question about living a normal life after a mental illness diagnosis.

4. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?

• A. Acute psychiatric illnesses impair intelligence.
• B. Intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors.
• C. Poor concentration skills suggest limited intelligence.
• D. The inability to think abstractly indicates limited intelligence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors. Social and cultural beliefs can impact how intelligence is perceived and expressed. Choice A is incorrect because acute psychiatric illnesses can affect cognitive functioning but not necessarily intelligence. Choice C is incorrect because poor concentration skills do not always correlate with limited intelligence. Choice D is incorrect because the inability to think abstractly is just one aspect of intelligence and does not solely indicate limited intelligence.

5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed an SSRI. The client reports feeling more energy but is still feeling hopeless. What should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. That the client may act on suicidal thoughts.
• B. That the client may engage in impulsive behavior.
• C. That the client may be experiencing the side effects of the medication.
• D. That the client may be at risk for developing serotonin syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned that the client may act on suicidal thoughts. An increase in energy combined with persistent feelings of hopelessness can indicate a higher risk of suicide. While impulsive behavior can be a concern, the primary worry should be the client's safety regarding suicidal ideation. Side effects of the medication are important to monitor but do not take precedence over the risk of self-harm. Serotonin syndrome is a potential concern with SSRIs, but in this scenario, the client's mental health and safety are the immediate priority.

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