an 18 year old gravida 1 at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing an oxytocin pitocin induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control with
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

2. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.

4. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to record the findings on the flow sheet. These assessment findings are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. The axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate of 42 breaths/min are all expected in a newborn. No immediate intervention is needed, so the nurse should document these normal findings for future reference. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel or swaddling the infant in a warm blanket is not indicated as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the vital signs in 15 minutes is unnecessary since the current findings are normal.

5. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been 'trying to start a new business' and is 'too busy to eat.' He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the most critical nursing diagnosis to address in this scenario. The patient's significant weight loss and neglect of basic needs, such as eating and personal hygiene, indicate a severe imbalance in nutrition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further health deterioration. Self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are important but secondary concerns compared to the immediate risk posed by imbalanced nutrition. While self-care deficit and disturbed sleep pattern are valid concerns, the patient's weight loss and neglect of basic needs take precedence. Disturbed thought processes are also significant but addressing the imbalanced nutrition is more urgent in this context.

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