Nursing Elites

1. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) self-administration. What information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about this medication?

• A. Self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection
• B. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K
• C. Signs of bleeding to report to the healthcare provider
• D. Proper disposal of used syringes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teaching the client about self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection is crucial for safe and effective use of enoxaparin. Option A is the correct answer as it directly addresses the client's need to know how to properly administer the medication. Options B, C, and D are important aspects of care but are not the most critical information needed for the client's self-administration of enoxaparin.

3. A client is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA) and voluntarily signs the AMA form. Which nursing action is essential prior to the client leaving?

• A. Remove the client's peripheral IV access
• B. Administer requested pain relief medication
• C. Obtain the client's neurological vital signs
• D. Provide the client with the hospital's phone number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing the client's peripheral IV access is essential before the client leaves against medical advice to prevent complications such as infection, thrombosis, or bleeding. Administering pain relief medication (choice B) can be important but not essential at this point. Obtaining neurological vital signs (choice C) is not specifically required before the client leaves. Providing the client with the hospital's phone number (choice D) may be helpful but is not as essential as ensuring the safe removal of IV access.

4. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

5. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
• B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
• C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
• D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

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