HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. The client is assessing a client who was recently diagnosed with heart failure and is on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. “I will use lemon juice and herbs for flavoring.â€
- B. “I will not eat canned soups or frozen dinners.â€
- C. “I can have salt substitutes to enhance the taste of my food.â€
- D. “I will check the food labels for sodium content before buying.â€
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some salt substitutes can be high in potassium, which may not be suitable for clients with heart failure. Option A is correct as using lemon juice and herbs for flavoring is a good low-sodium alternative. Option B is also correct as canned soups and frozen dinners are typically high in sodium content. Option D is correct as checking food labels for sodium content is an essential part of managing a low-sodium diet. Therefore, the client's statement about using salt substitutes needs correction as it can introduce high levels of potassium, which may not be recommended for individuals with heart failure.
2. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?
- A. Bulk-forming agent
- B. Antianxiety agent
- C. Stool softener
- D. Stimulant cathartic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.
3. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
- B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
- C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
- D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.
4. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.
5. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
- A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
- B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
- C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
- D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.
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