Nursing Elites

1. After a 26-year-old gravida 4, para 0 experienced a spontaneous abortion at 9 weeks gestation, how should the nurse intervene after observing the client crying softly one hour post dilation and curettage (D&C)?

• A. Offer to call the social worker to discuss the possibility of adoption
• B. Reassure the client that the infertility specialist can help
• C. Express sorrow for the client's grief and offer to sit with her
• D. Chart the vital signs and amount of vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a traumatic experience like a spontaneous abortion, it is crucial for the nurse to provide emotional support. Expressing sorrow for the client's grief and offering to sit with her demonstrates empathy and allows the client to process her emotions. Options A and B focus on future possibilities and medical interventions, which may not be immediately appropriate. Option D, while important for monitoring the client's physical status, does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

2. A 4-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is receiving a chemotherapy protocol that includes methotrexate, an antimetabolite. Which information should the nurse provide the parents about caring for their child?

• A. Use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors.
• B. Include the child in regular outings with the family.
• C. Obtain any childhood vaccinations that are not up-to-date.
• D. Use diluted commercial mouthwash for mouth care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors. Methotrexate can cause photosensitivity, making the child more prone to sunburns and skin damage. Therefore, advising the parents to protect their child's skin from direct sunlight exposure is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because exposing the child to direct sunlight without protection can worsen the photosensitivity caused by methotrexate. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining vaccinations is generally avoided during chemotherapy due to the child's compromised immune system. Choice D is incorrect as commercial mouthwash may contain alcohol, which can be irritating to the child's oral mucosa, especially during chemotherapy.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Blood pH of 7.30
• C. Positive urine ketones
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.

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