Nursing Elites

1. A 23-year-old single client is in the 33rd week of her first pregnancy. She tells the nurse that she has everything ready for the baby and has made plans for the first weeks together at home. Which normal emotional reaction does the nurse recognize?

• A. Acceptance of the pregnancy
• B. Focus on fetal development
• C. Anticipation of the birth
• D. Ambivalence about pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Anticipation of the birth.' In the third trimester, it is common for expectant mothers to feel excited and prepared for the upcoming birth of their baby. This includes making plans for the baby's arrival and the early days at home. Choice A, 'Acceptance of the pregnancy,' may occur earlier in the pregnancy and does not specifically relate to the third trimester. Choice B, 'Focus on fetal development,' is more common in the earlier stages of pregnancy when the mother may be more concerned with the baby's growth and milestones. Choice D, 'Ambivalence about pregnancy,' suggests conflicting feelings which are less likely in this scenario where the client expresses readiness and plans for the baby's arrival.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradycardia, which is a common sign of toxicity associated with this medication. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically seen with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (Choice B) can occur but is less specific to digoxin toxicity. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, monitoring for bradycardia is crucial in clients receiving digoxin to detect toxicity early.

3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

4. The delivery of basic health services was decentralized to the local government units. The legal basis for this is embodied in:

• A. RA 7035
• B. EO 119
• C. RA 7160
• D. PD 999

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, RA 7160. This law, also known as the Local Government Code, decentralizes health services to local government units. RA 7035 is not the legal basis for decentralizing basic health services. EO 119 and PD 999 are also not the correct legal bases for the decentralization of health services.

5. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

• A. Health education
• B. Regular exercise
• C. Screening tests
• D. Physical therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

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