Nursing Elites

1. A 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent. The oxygen level in the tent is 25%, and blood gases are normal. What would be the correct action by the nurse?

• A. Restrain the child in the tent and notify the health care provider.
• B. Increase the oxygen concentration in the tent.
• C. Take the child out of the tent and into the playroom.
• D. Ask the mother for help in comforting the child.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The child with LTB should be placed in the mist tent with 30% oxygen. Restlessness is caused by poor oxygenation. The child should not be taken out of the oxygenated tent. While the mother could be asked to help comfort the child, and the health care provider may be notified, the priority is to set the oxygen at the correct level.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.

• A. Ensure the client is NPO and document the last meal.
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• C. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client’s medication history.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client’s medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.

3. The nurse is obtaining a client's fingerstick glucose level. After gently milking the client's finger, the nurse observes that the distal tip of the finger appears reddened and engorged. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Collect the blood sample
• B. Assess radial pulse volume
• C. Apply pressure to the site
• D. Select another finger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the nurse observes that the distal tip of the client's finger is reddened and engorged after milking, it indicates adequate blood flow. At this point, the appropriate action is to collect the blood sample for glucose level testing. Assessing radial pulse volume (Choice B) is unrelated to the situation and not necessary. Applying pressure to the site (Choice C) may disrupt the blood sample collection process. Selecting another finger (Choice D) is not warranted as the engorgement indicates sufficient blood flow for sampling.

4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Elevated serum amylase
• B. Decreased serum bilirubin
• C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.

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