a 2 year old child with laryngotracheobronchitis ltb is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent the oxygen level in the tent is 25 and blood gases are n
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1. A 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent. The oxygen level in the tent is 25%, and blood gases are normal. What would be the correct action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The child with LTB should be placed in the mist tent with 30% oxygen. Restlessness is caused by poor oxygenation. The child should not be taken out of the oxygenated tent. While the mother could be asked to help comfort the child, and the health care provider may be notified, the priority is to set the oxygen at the correct level.

2. During the initial assessment of an older male client with obesity and diabetes who develops intermittent claudication, which additional information obtained by the nurse is most significant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral arterial disease, a condition that can lead to intermittent claudication. The nicotine and other chemicals in cigarettes can damage blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and increased risk of developing circulation problems. Choices B, C, and D are less significant in the context of intermittent claudication. Regular exercise, a high-fat diet, and daily alcohol consumption may have health implications, but they are not as directly linked to the development of intermittent claudication in the presence of obesity, diabetes, and smoking.

3. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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