Nursing Elites

1. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?

• A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
• B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
• C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
• D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.

2. A young adult male with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the psychiatric unit for detoxification. He is agitated, sweating, and reports seeing bugs crawling on the walls. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that the bugs are not real.
• B. Administer the prescribed benzodiazepine.
• C. Place the client in a quiet, dark room.
• D. Encourage the client to express his feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the prescribed benzodiazepine. This intervention helps manage the client's agitation and hallucinations, which are common symptoms during detoxification from substances. Reassuring the client that the bugs are not real (Choice A) may not be effective in addressing the underlying causes of the hallucinations. Placing the client in a quiet, dark room (Choice C) may help reduce sensory stimulation but does not directly address the client's symptoms. Encouraging the client to express his feelings (Choice D) is important for therapeutic communication but may not be the priority when the client is experiencing severe agitation and hallucinations.

3. A client with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric care unit for aggressive behavior, auditory hallucinations, and potential for self-harm. The client has not been taking medications as prescribed and insists that the food has been poisoned and refuses to eat. What intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Assure the client that all food served in the hospital is safe to eat.
• B. Tell the client that irrational thinking is a symptom of schizophrenia.
• C. Obtain an order for a tube feeding for the client.
• D. Provide the client with food in unopened containers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to provide the client with food in unopened containers. This approach can help alleviate the client's fear of poisoning and encourage eating. Choice A may not address the client's specific fear and may be perceived as dismissive. Choice B, while providing information about symptoms of schizophrenia, does not address the immediate issue of the client's refusal to eat due to the fear of poisoning. Choice C of obtaining an order for tube feeding is premature and invasive before exploring less restrictive options.

4. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

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