HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A 50-year-old female is in the hospital with peripheral artery disease. In the nursing care plan, the nurse lists the following nursing diagnosis: Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral related to venous stasis. Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing action to list in the implementation of this diagnosis?
- A. Keep the client's extremities cold
- B. Check for strength and symmetry of peripheral pulses
- C. Keep the client's legs elevated
- D. Monitor for any constrictions, such as clothes or covers that are too tight around the legs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the client’s extremities cold would worsen perfusion issues and is not recommended. In peripheral artery disease, maintaining warmth is crucial to promote vasodilation and improve blood flow. Checking peripheral pulses for strength and symmetry, keeping the client's legs elevated to reduce venous stasis, and monitoring for constrictions that may impair circulation are appropriate nursing actions to enhance tissue perfusion in this case. Thus, option A is incorrect as it would hinder perfusion in the affected extremities.
2. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- B. To improve circulation in the legs.
- C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
- D. To alleviate post-operative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.
3. The nurse is preparing to provide wound care for a client. Which step should be done first?
- A. Don procedural gloves
- B. Remove the dressing
- C. Apply prescribed medications to the wound
- D. Don a pair of sterile gloves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to don procedural gloves first. Donning procedural gloves is essential to protect the nurse from contaminants while removing the old dressing. This step helps maintain aseptic technique and prevents the transfer of microorganisms. Removing the dressing (choice B) should follow after wearing gloves to prevent the spread of pathogens. Applying prescribed medications (choice C) should be done after the wound is cleaned and dressed. Donning a pair of sterile gloves (choice D) is not necessary for initial wound care; procedural gloves are sufficient for standard wound care.
4. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
- A. Due date
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Gravida and parity
- D. Fundal height
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
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