HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. In the morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours. Administering it at bedtime helps mimic the body's natural insulin secretion pattern and provides optimal blood glucose control during the night and throughout the day. Choice A (Before meals) is incorrect because insulin glargine is not a rapid-acting insulin meant to cover meals. Choice B (After meals) is incorrect as the timing doesn't align with the insulin's mechanism. Choice D (In the morning) is incorrect as administering insulin glargine in the morning may not provide adequate coverage throughout the night and the following day.
2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in the urine or stool, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or nosebleeds, to ensure early detection and intervention.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Nausea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.
4. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?
- A. Difficulty starting urination
- B. Nosebleeds
- C. Muscle cramps
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Skin rash
- C. Hair loss
- D. Abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.
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