HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. What is the primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?
- A. To improve cardiovascular fitness
- B. To prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures
- C. To increase respiratory function
- D. To enhance cognitive function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises is to prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures. These exercises are crucial in maintaining joint mobility and muscle flexibility, especially in patients who are immobilized or have limited mobility. Improving cardiovascular fitness (Choice A) involves different types of exercises that target the heart and blood vessels, not specifically ROM exercises. Increasing respiratory function (Choice C) is typically achieved through breathing exercises and activities that enhance lung capacity. Enhancing cognitive function (Choice D) is usually addressed through cognitive exercises and activities that stimulate brain function.
2. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
- B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
- C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
- D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.
3. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the charge nurse
- B. Give the medication and document the heart rate
- C. Withhold the medication until the next scheduled dose
- D. Request the charge nurse to administer the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.
4. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
- A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
- B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
- C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
- D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
5. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access