what is the primary purpose of performing range of motion rom exercises
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. What is the primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises is to prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures. These exercises are crucial in maintaining joint mobility and muscle flexibility, especially in patients who are immobilized or have limited mobility. Improving cardiovascular fitness (Choice A) involves different types of exercises that target the heart and blood vessels, not specifically ROM exercises. Increasing respiratory function (Choice C) is typically achieved through breathing exercises and activities that enhance lung capacity. Enhancing cognitive function (Choice D) is usually addressed through cognitive exercises and activities that stimulate brain function.

2. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

3. A client is complaining of a tingling sensation in the fingers, nose tip, and earlobes 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which measure should the PN implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany. Tingling sensations post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication that requires prompt treatment with calcium gluconate to prevent tetany. Initiating L-thyroxine replacement therapy (choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Applying sequential compression devices (choice A) is not indicated for tingling sensations and does not address the potential complication of hypocalcemia. Preparing for an emergency tracheotomy (choice D) is not warranted based on the client's symptoms of tingling sensations.

4. What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.

5. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

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