Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?

• A. To improve cardiovascular fitness
• B. To prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures
• C. To increase respiratory function
• D. To enhance cognitive function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises is to prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures. These exercises are crucial in maintaining joint mobility and muscle flexibility, especially in patients who are immobilized or have limited mobility. Improving cardiovascular fitness (Choice A) involves different types of exercises that target the heart and blood vessels, not specifically ROM exercises. Increasing respiratory function (Choice C) is typically achieved through breathing exercises and activities that enhance lung capacity. Enhancing cognitive function (Choice D) is usually addressed through cognitive exercises and activities that stimulate brain function.

2. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.

3. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?

• A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
• B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
• C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
• D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.

4. When preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Check the placement of the NG tube
• B. Flush the tube with saline
• C. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position
• D. Administer the medication slowly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check the placement of the NG tube. This step is essential to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the lungs, preventing potential complications. Flushing the tube with saline may be required, but it should follow the verification of tube placement. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is necessary for comfort during the procedure but is not the initial step. Administering the medication can only be done safely after confirming the correct placement of the NG tube.

5. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

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