Nursing Elites

1. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.

2. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
• B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
• C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
• D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
• B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

4. Which action should the nurse implement during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?

• A. Identify new problem areas.
• B. Confront changes not completed.
• C. Explore the client's past in depth.
• D. Help summarize accomplishments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is essential for the nurse to help summarize accomplishments. This action provides closure by reflecting on the progress and goals achieved during treatment. It reinforces the positive aspects of the therapeutic relationship and helps the client acknowledge their growth and achievements. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Identifying new problem areas is not appropriate during termination, as the focus should be on closure. Confronting changes not completed may create tension and disrupt the positive closure process. Exploring the client's past in depth is more suitable for earlier stages of the therapeutic relationship, not during termination.

5. On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?

• A. I'd hate being asked these sorts of questions too, but it's a necessary part of providing you with the best care.
• B. This is difficult for you to speak about, but I need this information from you in order to perform a complete assessment.
• C. I am a professional registered nurse, and, as such, I'll have you know that all your information is certainly kept confidential.
• D. I know that some of these questions are difficult for you, but, as a professional nurse, I am obligated to respect your confidentiality.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.

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