Nursing Elites

1. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.

2. A nurse working in the emergency room of a children's hospital admits a child whose injuries could have resulted from abuse. Which statement most accurately describes the nurse's responsibility in cases of suspected child abuse?

• A. Obtain objective data such as x-rays before reporting suspicions.
• B. Confirm suspicions of abuse with the physician.
• C. Report any case of suspected child abuse.
• D. Document injuries to confirm suspected abuse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any case of suspected child abuse.' Nurses are mandated reporters, which means they are legally obligated to report any suspicions of child abuse to appropriate authorities to ensure the child's safety. This responsibility overrides the need to gather additional data or confirm suspicions with others before reporting. Choice A is incorrect because delaying reporting to gather more data may risk the child's safety. Choice B is incorrect because reporting suspicions promptly is crucial, and waiting to confirm with another healthcare provider could delay necessary intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to report suspicions promptly rather than focusing on documenting injuries to confirm abuse.

3. What are neurotransmitters?

• A. Chemical messengers that cause brain cells to turn on or off.
• B. Areas of the brain that are responsible for controlling emotions.
• C. Clumps of cells that alert the other brain cells to receive messages.
• D. Web-like structures that provide connections among parts of the brain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neurotransmitters are chemicals in the brain that act as messengers between neurons, influencing various psychological functions. Choice A correctly defines neurotransmitters by stating that they are chemical messengers that cause brain cells to turn on or off. This is the function of neurotransmitters in transmitting signals between neurons. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe neurotransmitters and their role in the brain.

4. A client in the mental health unit believes that the food is being poisoned. What intervention(s) would be helpful when attempting to encourage the client to eat? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Use open-ended questions to encourage client dialogue
• B. Offer opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition
• C. Focus on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences
• D. Identify the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using open-ended questions and focusing on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences can help build rapport and trust with the client, encouraging them to eat. Identifying the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat can provide insights into their concerns. However, offering opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition may come across as imposing views on the client, potentially leading to resistance. This approach may not be as effective in encouraging the client to eat as it could create a power dynamic that hinders the therapeutic relationship.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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