HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A client is scheduled to have his alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level checked. The client asks the nurse to explain the laboratory test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. “This test will indicate if you are at risk for developing blood clots.â€
- B. “This test will determine if your heart is performing properly.â€
- C. “This test will provide information about the function of your liver.â€
- D. “This test is used to check how your kidneys are working.â€
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “This test will provide information about the function of your liver.†Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme mainly found in the liver. An elevated ALT level may indicate liver damage or disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ALT is specifically related to liver function and not indicative of blood clot risk, heart performance, or kidney function.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Pheochromocytoma is characterized by the overproduction of catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not typical in pheochromocytoma as increased catecholamines usually lead to tachycardia. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) and weight gain (Choice D) are not commonly associated symptoms of pheochromocytoma.
3. Postoperatively, signs of hemorrhagic shock are observed. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who instructs to continue monitoring vitals every 15 minutes and report back in one hour. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Notify the nurse manager
- B. Continue monitoring as instructed
- C. Administer IV fluids as per protocol
- D. Prepare for immediate transfer to the ICU
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to continue monitoring the patient as instructed. This is crucial to assess the patient's condition and response to initial interventions. Administering IV fluids or preparing for transfer to the ICU should only be done based on further assessment or explicit orders from the healthcare provider. Notifying the nurse manager, as suggested in choice A, without further assessment or intervention could delay immediate patient care and management.
4. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?
- A. “I will leave the IV catheter in place after the client completes the course of IV antibiotics.â€
- B. “As long as I am working with the same client, I can use the same IV catheter for my second insertion attempt.â€
- C. “If my client needs to use the restroom, it would be safer to disconnect their IV infusion as long as I clean the injection port thoroughly with an antiseptic swab.â€
- D. “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.â€
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.†This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.
5. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
- B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
- C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
- D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.
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