HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When orienting a newly licensed nurse on taking a telephone prescription, which statement indicates understanding of the process?
- A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s medical record.
- B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
- C. The provider can clarify the prescription when they sign the health record.
- D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a second nurse should verify and enter the prescription into the client’s medical record to ensure accuracy. This step is crucial to prevent errors in transcription and administration. Choice B is incorrect as having another nurse listen to the phone call does not ensure accurate transcription. Choice C is incorrect because the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record does not replace the need for proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' process is essential for all telephone prescriptions to confirm accuracy and prevent errors in transcription or administration.
2. A nurse is talking with an adolescent who is having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following issues should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. “I kind of like this boy in my class, but he doesn’t like me back.â€
- B. “I want to hang out with the kids in the science club, but the jocks pick on them.â€
- C. “I am so fat, I skip meals to try to lose weight.â€
- D. “My dad wants me to be a lawyer like him, but I just want to dance.â€
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Skipping meals to lose weight may indicate an eating disorder or significant distress, which can have serious health implications. This behavior raises concerns about the adolescent's physical and mental well-being. The nurse should prioritize addressing potential eating disorders and body image issues in this situation. Choices A, B, and D, while important, do not pose an immediate risk to the adolescent's health or well-being compared to the potential consequences of disordered eating behavior.
3. A client is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?
- A. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
- B. Exercise 1 hour before going to bed
- C. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
- D. Reflect on the day's activities before going to bed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend the client to use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime. Progressive relaxation techniques help reduce stress and muscle tension, which can promote better sleep. Choice A, drinking a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime, contains caffeine which can interfere with falling asleep. Choice B, exercising 1 hour before going to bed, can stimulate the body and mind, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice D, reflecting on the day's activities before going to bed, may lead to increased mental activity and prevent relaxation, making it difficult to fall asleep.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has gained weight since her last visit, and her ankles are edematous. Which of the following findings by the nurse is another clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Weak pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A bounding pulse is indicative of fluid volume excess. In this case, the client's weight gain and edematous ankles already suggest fluid volume overload. A bounding pulse occurs due to increased blood volume and pressure. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of fluid volume excess. Decreased blood pressure, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse are more commonly associated with conditions such as dehydration or hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in fluid volume rather than an excess.
5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
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