HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. When reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient, which basic principle of teaching should you follow?
- A. Sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex.
- B. Assume that the patient knows little or nothing about the topic.
- C. Tell the patient to call their significant other so you can instruct them.
- D. Use medically oriented terms so the patient will be able to speak with the doctor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct principle of teaching to follow when reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient is to sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex. This approach facilitates learning by building upon simpler concepts before moving to more advanced ones. Choice B is incorrect because assuming the patient knows little or nothing about the topic may not always be accurate and can be patronizing. Choice C is incorrect as it does not focus on the direct teaching approach to the patient. Choice D is incorrect as using medically oriented terms may confuse the patient rather than facilitate understanding.
2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
3. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.
- A. 38 gtts/min
- B. 42 gtts/min
- C. 50 gtts/min
- D. 40 gtts/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.
4. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?
- A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
- B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
- C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
- D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.
5. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. ST depression
- B. Inverted T wave
- C. Prominent U wave
- D. Tall peaked T waves
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.
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