who among the following share 100 of their genes
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.

2. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.

3. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

4. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.

5. When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman’s health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.

Similar Questions

A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?
Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:
A newborn is being assessed by a nurse who was born post-term. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses