HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. While providing oral care for a client who is unconscious, the nurse positions the client laterally and uses a basin to collect secretions. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Swab the oral cavity with a washcloth
- B. Use oral swabs with normal saline
- C. Provide a Yankauer tip for oral suction
- D. Support the head with a small pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using oral swabs with normal saline is the best intervention in this scenario as it effectively cleans the oral cavity without causing irritation or dryness, which is crucial for an unconscious client. Swabbing the oral cavity with a washcloth may not provide thorough cleaning, and it can potentially cause irritation. Providing a Yankauer tip for oral suction is not necessary unless there are excessive secretions that need to be suctioned. Supporting the head with a small pillow, although important for comfort, is not directly related to oral care in an unconscious client.
2. A client is admitted to the postoperative surgical unit with two test tubes after a left lobectomy. The nurse observed that the chambers are set at the prescribed suction of 20 cm water pressure, and tidying occurs with respirations and bubbling. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Clamp the chest tube to see if the bubbling activity stops
- B. Notify the registered nurse of the observed bubbling
- C. Maintain system integrity to promote lung reexpansion
- D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining system integrity is essential to promote lung reexpansion in postoperative patients with chest tubes. Clamping the chest tube abruptly can lead to tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. The bubbling observed is a normal sign indicating that the system is functioning correctly, as it allows the drainage of air or fluid from the pleural space. Notifying the registered nurse may be necessary if there are significant concerns or changes observed, but the immediate action should be to ensure system integrity and lung reexpansion.
3. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?
- A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
- B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
- C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
- D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.
4. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
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