Nursing Elites

1. While providing oral care for a client who is unconscious, the nurse positions the client laterally and uses a basin to collect secretions. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Swab the oral cavity with a washcloth
• B. Use oral swabs with normal saline
• C. Provide a Yankauer tip for oral suction
• D. Support the head with a small pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using oral swabs with normal saline is the best intervention in this scenario as it effectively cleans the oral cavity without causing irritation or dryness, which is crucial for an unconscious client. Swabbing the oral cavity with a washcloth may not provide thorough cleaning, and it can potentially cause irritation. Providing a Yankauer tip for oral suction is not necessary unless there are excessive secretions that need to be suctioned. Supporting the head with a small pillow, although important for comfort, is not directly related to oral care in an unconscious client.

2. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

3. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for the client?

• A. Auscultating the client's heart sounds
• B. Provide the client with a diversionary activity
• C. Encourage deep breathing
• D. Maintain a patent intravenous access

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing a diversionary activity is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote comfort for a client with pericarditis. This intervention helps to distract the patient and reduce discomfort by focusing their attention elsewhere. Auscultating heart sounds, while important for monitoring the condition, does not directly address the client's comfort. Encouraging deep breathing can be beneficial for some conditions but may not be specifically aimed at promoting comfort in pericarditis. Maintaining a patent intravenous access is essential for treatment access and management of the condition, but it does not directly promote comfort for the client.

5. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

Similar Questions