Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client with infective endocarditis, the nurse must be alert for signs of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following assessment findings suggests this complication?

• A. Positive Homan's sign
• B. Fever and chills
• C. Dyspnea and cough
• D. Sensory impairment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dyspnea and cough.' Pulmonary embolism often presents with a sudden onset of dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and cough, which are due to the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, fever and chills are nonspecific symptoms commonly seen in infective endocarditis, and sensory impairment is not typically indicative of pulmonary embolism.

2. What role does a community health nurse play in disaster management?

• A. Providing direct patient care
• B. Conducting research on disaster impacts
• C. Coordinating emergency response efforts
• D. Developing new healthcare policies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Community health nurses are primarily responsible for coordinating emergency response efforts during disasters. This involves organizing and implementing strategies to address the health needs of the community in crisis situations. Providing direct patient care (Choice A) is often carried out by other healthcare professionals such as doctors and paramedics during disasters. Conducting research on disaster impacts (Choice B) is important for understanding the effects of disasters but is not the primary role of a community health nurse. Developing new healthcare policies (Choice D) is typically the responsibility of policymakers and public health officials rather than community health nurses.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

4. Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

• A. Safety measures in the home.
• B. Adult immunization program.
• C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
• D. Vision and hearing screening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

5. The healthcare professional enters the room as a 3-year-old is having a generalized seizure. Which intervention should the healthcare professional do first?

• A. Clear the area of any hazards
• B. Place the child on the side
• C. Restrain the child
• D. Give the prescribed anticonvulsant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the side is the priority intervention during a generalized seizure as it helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Clearing the area of any hazards is important but should come after ensuring the child's safety. Restraining the child is not recommended during a seizure as it can lead to injury. Giving the prescribed anticonvulsant is important but should not be the first action during an ongoing seizure.

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