Nursing Elites

1. A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy with a known vesicant. The client's IV has been in place for 72 hours. The nurse determines that a new IV site cannot be obtained and leaves the present IV in place. What is the greatest clinical risk related to this situation?

• A. Impaired skin integrity
• B. Fluid volume excess
• C. Acute pain and anxiety
• D. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired skin integrity. In this situation, the greatest clinical risk is related to impaired skin integrity due to the potential extravasation of the vesicant. Vesicants are substances that can cause severe tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Choices B, C, and D are not the most significant risks in this scenario. Fluid volume excess, acute pain, and peripheral neurovascular dysfunction are not directly associated with leaving the IV in place with a known vesicant for an extended period.

2. How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?

• A. They involve antigen-antibody complexes.
• B. They are mediated by T cells and do not involve antibodies.
• C. They result in immediate allergic reactions.
• D. They are the least severe form of hypersensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.

3. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Risk for infection related to thrombolysis.
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to thrombolysis.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to thrombolysis.
• D. Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

4. A community hit by a hurricane has suffered mass destruction and flooding. Several facilities are not functioning, and the area is contaminated with human excretions. The nurse is developing a plan of care for clients diagnosed with cholera after an outbreak. Which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed.
• B. Provide fluid and electrolyte replacement.
• C. Isolate all infectious diarrhea victims.
• D. Administer cholera vaccine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing fluid and electrolyte replacement is the highest priority to prevent dehydration and shock in clients with cholera. Administering prophylactic antibiotics may be necessary but is not the highest priority. Isolating infectious diarrhea victims is important for preventing the spread of infection, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Administering a cholera vaccine is preventive and not the immediate priority in treating clients already diagnosed with cholera.

5. A young adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit with multiple rib fractures and severe pulmonary contusions after falling 20 feet from a rooftop. The Chest X-ray suggests acute Respiratory distress Syndrome. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the Nurse?

• A. Apical pulse 58 bpm.
• B. Core body temperature 100.8°F.
• C. Tachypnea with dyspnea.
• D. Multiple bruises over the chest area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with multiple rib fractures, severe pulmonary contusions, and possible acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), tachypnea (rapid breathing) with dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a critical sign of respiratory distress that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Tachypnea and dyspnea indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which can lead to respiratory failure if not addressed promptly. The other options, such as apical pulse rate, core body temperature, and bruises over the chest area, are important assessments but do not directly indicate the immediate need for intervention in a patient with respiratory distress.

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