while assessing a client four hours post thoracentesis the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest what action shou
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.

2. A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Metformin does not require additional doses for hyperglycemia, and sliding scale insulin is not typically used with metformin. It is important for the client to recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider, and take the medication with meals. Teaching the client to use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation is not appropriate in this case because metformin is the prescribed medication, and its mechanism of action differs from insulin therapy. The client should be educated on the importance of taking metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and to report any persistent polyuria, which could indicate poor blood sugar control.

3. What action should the nurse implement for a female client with cancer who has a good appetite but experiences nausea whenever she smells food cooking?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside. This strategy can help reduce the smell of cooking food and potentially alleviate the client's nausea triggered by food smells. Assessing the client's mucus membranes (choice C) is not directly related to the client's symptom of nausea triggered by food smells. Instructing the client to take an antiemetic before every meal (choice D) may not address the root cause of the issue, which is the smell of cooking food. Advising the client to replace cooked foods with nutritional supplements (choice B) does not address the immediate problem of food odors triggering nausea.

4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

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