Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to perform cough and deep breathing exercises
• B. Assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort
• C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula according to the PNR protocol
• D. Document assessment findings in the client’s medical record

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.

2. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased white blood cell count
• B. Pruritus and muscle aches
• C. Elevated liver function tests
• D. Vomiting and diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse perform when suctioning the tracheostomy tube?

• A. Increase wall suction while removing the suction catheter
• B. Instill 10 ml of sterile saline into the tracheostomy tube before applying continuous suction
• C. Suction the client’s oropharynx after tracheal suctioning
• D. Insert the suction catheter into the trachea, and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, it is essential to insert the suction catheter into the trachea and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter. This technique helps prevent damage to the trachea and reduces discomfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect because increasing wall suction with the removal of the suction catheter can cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because instilling saline into the tracheostomy tube before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect as oropharyngeal suctioning should be done before tracheal suctioning to prevent the risk of aspiration.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

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