which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome
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Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

2. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who reports acute pain but refuses IM medication. The nurse distracts the client and quickly administers the injection. This illustrates which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Battery.' Administering the injection without the client's consent constitutes battery. Assault involves the threat of harm, not the actual act. False imprisonment is restraining a client against their will, which does not apply here. Libel refers to a false written statement, which is not relevant in this scenario.

4. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.

5. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such as opening the eyes and the sleep-wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent vegetative state is characterized by the absence of cognitive functioning while basic human functions like the sleep-wake cycle are retained. In this state, the patient shows reflex movements and basic responses to stimuli but lacks awareness or higher mental functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Obtunded refers to a decreased level of consciousness, not the absence of cognitive functioning. C) Locked-in syndrome is a condition where the patient is aware and awake but cannot move or communicate due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles except for vertical eye movements and blinking. D) Brain death is the irreversible cessation of all brain activity, including the brainstem, leading to the loss of all functions of the brain.

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