Nursing Elites

1. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

2. Dr. Shrunk orders intravenous (IV) insulin for Rita, a client with a blood sugar of 563. Nurse AJ administers insulin lispro (Humalog) intravenously (IV). What does the best evaluation of the nurse reveal? Select one that does not apply.

• A. The nurse could have given the insulin subcutaneously.
• B. The nurse did not have to contact the physician.
• C. The nurse should have used regular insulin (Humulin R).
• D. The nurse used the correct insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best evaluation of the nurse reveals that she should have used regular insulin (Humulin R) for IV administration. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for intravenous administration due to its pharmacokinetic properties. Insulin lispro (Humalog) is not suitable for IV use. Choice A is incorrect because giving insulin intravenously is necessary in this case of high blood sugar. Choice B is incorrect because administering a different insulin without consulting the physician is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse used the incorrect insulin, which could pose risks to the client's health.

3. A nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following assessments should the nurse make before delegating care?

• A. Is the client's family present so the AP can show them how to turn the client?
• B. Has data been collected about specific client needs related to turning?
• C. Does the AP have time to change the client's central IV line dressing after turning her?
• D. Has the AP checked the client's pain level prior to turning her?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before delegating the task of bathing and turning a client with end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP), the nurse must assess specific client needs related to turning. This assessment ensures that the delegated care is tailored to the client's individual requirements, promoting safe and effective care. Option A is incorrect because the presence of the client's family is not directly related to assessing the client's specific needs for turning. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a different task (changing the central IV line dressing) and is not directly related to the turning assessment. Option D is incorrect as checking the client's pain level, although important, is not directly related to the specific needs related to turning the client.

4. A charge nurse notices that two staff nurses are not taking meal breaks during their shifts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Discuss time management strategies with the nurses
• B. Provide coverage for the nurses' breaks
• C. Determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks
• D. Review policies for taking scheduled breaks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks. This action is crucial as it allows the charge nurse to understand the underlying causes for the behavior. By identifying the reasons, the nurse can then address the root of the issue effectively. Option A is incorrect because discussing time management strategies may not address the specific reasons for not taking breaks. Option B is incorrect as providing coverage for breaks does not address the underlying cause of the issue. Option D is also incorrect as reviewing policies should come after understanding the reasons for the behavior.

5. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

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