Nursing Elites

1. Which presentation of an infectious disease is acquired through an indirect transmission?

• A. Syphilis contracted from a sexual partner.
• B. Measles resulting from a daycare center outbreak.
• C. Malaria following exposure in a mosquito-infested area.
• D. Nosocomial influenza spreading rapidly in a long-term care center.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Malaria is transmitted indirectly through mosquito bites. Choice A is incorrect as syphilis is acquired through direct contact with an infected sexual partner. Choice B is incorrect as measles can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in close contact settings like daycare centers. Choice D is incorrect as nosocomial influenza spreads within healthcare facilities through direct contact or droplets.

2. When caring for premature newborns in an intensive care setting, a nurse carefully monitors oxygen concentration. What is the most common complication of this therapy?

• A. Intraventricular hemorrhage
• B. Retinopathy of prematurity
• C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
• D. Necrotizing enterocolitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Retinopathy of prematurity is the most common complication in premature infants exposed to high concentrations of oxygen. This condition leads to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina, which can potentially result in blindness if not managed promptly. Intraventricular hemorrhage, though a significant concern in premature infants, is not directly related to oxygen therapy. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily associated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure over time, not specifically with oxygen concentration monitoring. Necrotizing enterocolitis is more linked to gastrointestinal issues and is not the most common complication of oxygen therapy in premature newborns.

3. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

• A. A male with a serum cholesterol level of 199 mg/dl.
• B. A female with a serum cholesterol level of 201 mg/dl.
• C. A male with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 200 mg/dl.
• D. A female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 160 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

5. As a supervisor, you plan to conduct a seminar in response to the midwife's training need for skills in community diagnosis. Which is an appropriate method to use to enable midwives to apply the knowledge they will gain in actual practice?

• A. lecture
• B. problem-solving
• C. group discussion
• D. nominal group technique

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Problem-solving is an effective method to enable midwives to apply the knowledge gained in actual practice. By engaging in problem-solving activities during the seminar, midwives can enhance their critical thinking skills and directly apply the information to real-life scenarios they may encounter in community diagnosis. Choice A (lecture) is less effective as it primarily involves passive listening and may not provide the hands-on experience needed for practical application. Choice C (group discussion) can be helpful for sharing perspectives but may not directly translate to practical application as problem-solving would. Choice D (nominal group technique) focuses more on generating ideas and reaching consensus rather than hands-on application of knowledge.

Similar Questions