HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy
- D. Provide humidified oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.
2. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
- A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
- B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
- C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
- D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.
3. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?
- A. Turns from side to back and returns
- B. Consistently returns smiles to mother
- C. Finds hands and plays with fingers
- D. Holds head up and supports weight with arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.
4. The client with diabetes is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. ''I will inspect my feet daily for any cuts or blisters.''
- B. ''I will soak my feet in warm water every day.''
- C. ''I will wear shoes that fit properly to avoid injury.''
- D. ''I will avoid walking barefoot to protect my feet.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown, making it inappropriate for clients with diabetes. Inspecting feet daily for cuts or blisters (Choice A), wearing properly fitting shoes (Choice C), and avoiding walking barefoot (Choice D) are all appropriate measures to maintain foot health for clients with diabetes.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
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