the nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Exam 1

1. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

2. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.

3. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

5. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.

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