Nursing Elites

1. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake
• C. Perform chest physiotherapy
• D. Provide humidified oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

2. After placing a client at 26-weeks gestation in the lithotomy position, the client complains of dizziness and becomes pale and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Place a wedge under the client's hip.
• C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
• D. Remove the client's legs from the stirrups.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a wedge under the client's hip is the correct action in this scenario. This helps relieve the pressure on the vena cava, which can become compressed in the lithotomy position during pregnancy, improving circulation and reducing symptoms like dizziness and pallor. Instructing the client to take deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice C) would worsen the situation by further compressing the vena cava. Removing the client's legs from the stirrups (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the issue.

3. The nurse plans to evaluate the effectiveness of several drugs administered by different routes. Arrange the routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption. 1. Intravenous 2. Sublingual 3. Intramuscular 4. Subcutaneous

• A. 1,2,3,4
• B. 4,3,2,1
• C. 2,4,3,1
• D. 3,4,1,2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption is 1. Intravenous, 2. Sublingual, 3. Intramuscular, 4. Subcutaneous. Intravenous administration provides the fastest absorption as the drug is directly injected into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Intramuscular administration has a slower absorption rate as the drug is injected into the muscle tissue. Subcutaneous administration is the slowest as the drug is injected into the fatty tissue under the skin, leading to a slower absorption compared to the other routes.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

5. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

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