HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy
- D. Provide humidified oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.
2. When preparing to administer blood to a client, what is the most important action to ensure client safety during this procedure?
- A. Check the client’s blood type compatibility
- B. Monitor the client for signs of transfusion reaction
- C. Verify the correct client and blood product with another healthcare professional
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important action to ensure client safety during a blood transfusion is to implement multiple safety checks. Checking the client’s blood type compatibility is crucial as it helps prevent major transfusion reactions. Monitoring the client for signs of transfusion reaction is essential to detect any adverse reactions early. Verifying the correct client and blood product with another healthcare professional adds an extra layer of safety by ensuring the right blood is administered to the right patient. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer because each action plays a vital role in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client during a blood transfusion. Options A, B, and C are not exclusive; they complement each other to provide comprehensive safety measures.
3. A client with a severe headache is being assessed by a nurse. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer pain relief medication
- B. Check the client's blood pressure
- C. Assess for associated symptoms such as nausea or photophobia
- D. Offer a quiet environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client presents with a severe headache, the initial action should be to check their blood pressure. This step is crucial as it can help determine if the headache is related to hypertension or other cardiovascular issues. Administering pain relief medication should only be done after assessing the client's vital signs and confirming the cause of the headache. While assessing for associated symptoms like nausea or photophobia is important for a comprehensive evaluation, it should follow checking the blood pressure to address immediate concerns. Offering a quiet environment is indeed beneficial for the client's comfort, but it is not the priority when dealing with a severe headache.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
5. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 50
- B. 67
- C. 57
- D. 70
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.
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