Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a particular DOH program?

• A. Family treatment record
• B. Target Client list
• C. Reporting forms
• D. Output record

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Target Client list. The Target Client list is specifically designed to monitor groups that are eligible for a particular DOH program. It helps in identifying and tracking individuals or populations that qualify for the said program. Choice A, Family treatment record, is incorrect because it pertains to the medical history and treatment information of a particular family, not eligibility monitoring. Choice C, Reporting forms, is incorrect as they are used for documenting and submitting information, not for monitoring eligibility. Choice D, Output record, is also incorrect as it refers to the results or outcomes produced by a system, not for monitoring eligibility.

2. What title should be given to this professional role in occupational health? A registered nurse who develops researchable questions, conducts research, and communicates the findings to occupational and environmental health professionals, other peers, and the public.

• A. manager
• B. researcher
• C. clinician/practitioner
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: researcher.' In this context, the individual is primarily involved in developing research questions, conducting research, and disseminating findings, which aligns with the responsibilities of a researcher. Choice 'A: manager' is incorrect because the role described does not primarily involve managerial duties. Choice 'C: clinician/practitioner' is also incorrect as the focus is on research activities rather than direct clinical practice. Choice 'D: health promotion specialist' does not encompass the full scope of responsibilities described in the scenario.

3. While performing an initial assessment on a newborn following a breech delivery, the nurse suspects hip dislocation. Which of the following is most suggestive of the abnormality?

• A. Flexion of lower extremities
• B. Negative Ortolani response
• C. Lengthened leg of affected side
• D. Irregular hip symmetry

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Irregular hip symmetry, such as asymmetry in the gluteal folds, is a common sign of hip dislocation in newborns. This finding indicates a potential abnormality in hip development and requires further evaluation and possible treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Flexion of lower extremities is a normal newborn reflex, the Ortolani response is used to detect hip dysplasia rather than hip dislocation, and a lengthened leg of the affected side is not typically associated with hip dislocation in newborns.

4. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

5. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

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