HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?
- A. Amikacin
- B. Moxifloxacin
- C. Rifabutin
- D. Cycloserine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue measuring the client's vital signs every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Document the provider's directive in the medical record
- B. Notify the nursing manager
- C. Consult the facility's risk manager
- D. Complete an incident report
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is facing a critical situation with a client showing signs of hemorrhagic shock. The surgeon's directive of waiting for an hour without providing immediate intervention poses a risk to the client's well-being. The nurse should prioritize the client's safety and advocate for timely and appropriate care. Notifying the nursing manager is the correct action as it activates the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care promptly. Documenting the provider's directive, consulting the risk manager, or completing an incident report are not the immediate actions needed to address the client's deteriorating condition and ensure patient safety.
3. A male client is returned to the surgical unit following a left nephrectomy and is medicated with morphine. His dressing has a small amount of bloody drainage, and a Jackson-Pratt bulb surgical drainage device is in place. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Monitor urine output hourly
- B. Assess for back muscle aches
- C. Record drainage from the drain
- D. Obtain body weight daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care following a left nephrectomy with a Jackson-Pratt bulb in place is to record drainage from the drain. Monitoring the drainage is crucial as it helps assess for potential complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or other issues related to the surgical site. Assessing urine output is important post-nephrectomy but not as critical as directly monitoring the drainage. Assessing for back muscle aches may be relevant for pain management but not as crucial as monitoring the drainage. Obtaining body weight daily is not directly related to assessing the surgical drain output and is less critical in this scenario.
4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.
- B. Assess blood pressure and heart rate at least every 4 hours.
- C. Measure calf girth to evaluate edema in the affected leg.
- D. Encourage mobilization to prevent pulmonary embolism.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.
5. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such as opening the eyes and the sleep-wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have?
- A. Obtunded
- B. A persistent vegetative state
- C. Locked-in syndrome
- D. Brain death
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A persistent vegetative state is characterized by the absence of cognitive functioning while basic human functions like the sleep-wake cycle are retained. In this state, the patient shows reflex movements and basic responses to stimuli but lacks awareness or higher mental functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Obtunded refers to a decreased level of consciousness, not the absence of cognitive functioning. C) Locked-in syndrome is a condition where the patient is aware and awake but cannot move or communicate due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles except for vertical eye movements and blinking. D) Brain death is the irreversible cessation of all brain activity, including the brainstem, leading to the loss of all functions of the brain.