Nursing Elites

1. A nurse who receives a patient in the operative suite prior to the actual surgery is in charge of the patient’s care. Which of the following is NOT a task related to the nurse’s intraoperative care?

• A. Go over the surgical procedure with the patient before he or she is anesthetized
• B. Strictly adhere to asepsis during all intraoperative procedures
• C. Provide emotional support to the patient and their family
• D. Monitor the patient’s physical status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Going over the surgical procedure with the patient is typically done preoperatively, not intraoperatively. Intraoperative tasks of a nurse involve strictly adhering to asepsis during procedures, monitoring the patient's physical status, and providing emotional support to the patient and their family during the surgery. Choices B, C, and D are all tasks that are directly related to the nurse's responsibilities during the intraoperative phase of care.

2. Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?

• A. Singed nasal hairs
• B. Conjunctivitis
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Clear sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.

3. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
• B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.

4. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

• A. To transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
• B. To protect the body from infections
• C. To help in blood clotting
• D. To regulate body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.

5. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?

• A. High-protein diet
• B. Frequent repositioning
• C. Immobility
• D. Active range of motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.

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