HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?
- A. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi.
- B. Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production.
- C. Progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls.
- D. Infection of the lung parenchyma.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe. Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (Choice A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (Choice C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (Choice D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.
2. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Stop taking the medication if you start feeling better.
- B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
- C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
- D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Report any unusual muscle movements immediately." Unusual muscle movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. It is crucial to address these symptoms promptly to prevent long-term effects. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication suddenly can be dangerous and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice B, while important, is not the most critical instruction in this scenario. Choice D is also incorrect as the ability to drive may be affected by the medication and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
3. When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Converse with the client to determine if the mucous membranes are impaired
- B. Report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr
- C. Monitor client's ability to move in the bed
- D. Check skin turgor every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.
4. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?
- A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
- B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
- C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
- D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing would most accurately be described by a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations. Choice A is incorrect as 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as 'appears to be sleeping' is not an accurate description of a non-responsive state. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than stated in the scenario.