Nursing Elites

1. Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?

• A. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi.
• B. Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production.
• C. Progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls.
• D. Infection of the lung parenchyma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe. Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (Choice A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (Choice C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (Choice D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.

2. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
• B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
• C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
• D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.

3. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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