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1. Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?
- A. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi.
- B. Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production.
- C. Progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls.
- D. Infection of the lung parenchyma.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe. Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (Choice A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (Choice C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (Choice D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.
2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with heart failure. Which instruction should be included to prevent fluid overload?
- A. Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- B. Increase fluid intake to stay hydrated
- C. Consume a high-sodium diet to retain fluids
- D. Engage in vigorous exercise daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.' Daily weight monitoring is crucial for detecting fluid retention early in clients with heart failure. Reporting a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours can indicate fluid overload, prompting timely intervention. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as a high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect as vigorous exercise can strain the heart and worsen heart failure symptoms.
3. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement when caring for an older client who is legally blind?
- A. Keep the room well-lit at all times.
- B. Speak to the client each time the nurse enters the room.
- C. Ensure the client wears glasses at all times.
- D. Provide written instructions in large print.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to speak to the client each time the nurse enters the room. This intervention is crucial for orienting and reassuring the client, promoting safety, and facilitating communication. Keeping the room well-lit (Choice A) can be helpful but is not as essential as direct verbal communication. Ensuring the client wears glasses (Choice C) may not be feasible or necessary for someone who is legally blind. Providing written instructions in large print (Choice D) is not effective for a client with visual impairments.
4. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?
- A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
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