Nursing Elites

1. Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?

• A. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi.
• B. Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production.
• C. Progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls.
• D. Infection of the lung parenchyma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe. Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (Choice A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (Choice C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (Choice D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.

2. The nurse is recording a history for a child who has been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What is a finding that is characteristic of this disorder?

• A. Morning headaches
• B. Pain for 3 consecutive months
• C. Febrile episodes in the late afternoon
• D. Diaphoresis when attacks occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain for 3 consecutive months. Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) is characterized by abdominal pain that occurs at least once per week for at least 2 months before diagnosis. Choosing option A is incorrect since morning headaches are not a common characteristic of RAP. Option C is incorrect because febrile episodes in the late afternoon are not typically associated with RAP. Option D is incorrect as diaphoresis (excessive sweating) when attacks occur is not a common finding in RAP.

3. The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply)

• A. Abdominal obesity
• B. Blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg
• C. Increased triglyceride levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the listed factors - abdominal obesity, high blood pressure, and increased triglyceride levels - are components of metabolic syndrome. Addressing these findings is crucial to help reduce the client's risk for developing diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, high blood pressure (150/96 mmHg) is a risk factor, and increased triglyceride levels are also indicative of the syndrome. Educating the client on lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating habits, regular physical activity, and monitoring these parameters, is essential in managing metabolic syndrome and preventing associated complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, making choice D the correct answer.

4. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

5. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
• B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
• C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
• D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.

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