Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the PN implement?

• A. Massage the calf and foot
• B. Elevate the leg above the heart
• C. Check the pedal pulse in the affected leg
• D. Extend the leg and flex the foot

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During labor, muscle cramps are common due to prolonged muscle tension. The correct intervention to alleviate a cramp in the leg is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps relieve the muscle spasm by stretching and contracting the muscles. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective in relieving the cramp as extending and flexing the leg. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not necessary and may not directly address the cramp. Checking the pedal pulse (Choice C) is important for assessing circulation, but it does not directly address the muscle cramp.

2. A client presents to the office with complaints of swelling in the legs, chills, and shortness of breath. During auscultation of the chest, a heart murmur is heard. The client's blood culture reveals a microorganism in the blood. When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called

• A. Bacteremia
• B. Sepsis
• C. Septicemia
• D. Parasitic infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called bacteremia, which refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, as indicated by a positive blood culture. If not appropriately treated, bacteremia can progress to septicemia, also known as sepsis. Sepsis is a severe and life-threatening response to an infection, characterized by systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction. Parasitic infections involve pathogens other than bacteria and are not directly related to the scenario described.

3. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?

• A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
• B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
• C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
• D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.

4. At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.

5. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.

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