Nursing Elites

1. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the PN plan to include in the child's plan of care?

• A. Recommend parents bring favorite snacks
• B. Encourage ambulation daily to the playroom
• C. Measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours
• D. Offer a selection of fresh fruit for each meal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. In glomerulonephritis, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypertension is a common complication. This helps in assessing the child's condition and response to treatment. Choice A, recommending parents bring favorite snacks, is not related to managing glomerulonephritis. Choice B, encouraging ambulation daily to the playroom, may not be appropriate during the acute edematous phase when the child may be experiencing fluid overload. Choice D, offering a selection of fresh fruit for each meal, is not directly relevant to managing the complications of glomerulonephritis.

2. A nurse is completing a focused assessment of an older adult's skin. The nurse notes a crusted 0.7 cm lesion on the client's forehead. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Report the finding to the healthcare provider
• B. Place a clear occlusive dressing over the site
• C. Apply a warm compress to remove the crusted area
• D. Explain that this is a normal skin change with aging

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A crusted lesion, especially in an older adult, could be indicative of skin cancer or another serious condition. Therefore, reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and appropriate management. Placing an occlusive dressing (Choice B) could prevent proper assessment and treatment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) may not be suitable for a suspicious skin lesion as it could worsen the condition. Explaining it as a normal skin change (Choice D) without proper evaluation can delay necessary interventions and potentially harm the patient.

3. All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:

• A. Kyphosis
• B. Scoliosis
• C. Thrombosis
• D. Lumbar lordosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.

4. A client confides to the nurse that the client has been substituting herbal supplements for high blood pressure instead of the prescribed medication. How should the nurse respond first?

• A. Ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication
• B. Reinforce that the healthcare provider prescribed the medication for a reason
• C. Have the client use their own words to describe complications of high blood pressure
• D. Point out the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication. Understanding the client's rationale for using herbal supplements allows the nurse to explore any misconceptions and provide education on the importance of the prescribed medication. Choice B is incorrect because simply reinforcing the prescription does not address the client's concerns or reasons for using herbal supplements. Choice C does not directly address the immediate concern of the client substituting medication with herbal supplements. Choice D focuses on the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements, which is not the most appropriate initial response.

5. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

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