Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?

• A. High-protein diet
• B. Frequent repositioning
• C. Immobility
• D. Active range of motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.

2. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

3. What is the most common sign of a localized infection?

• A. Fever
• B. Elevated white blood cell count
• C. Redness, warmth, and swelling at the site of infection
• D. Chills and shivering

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Redness, warmth, and swelling at the site of infection. These signs are typical indications of a localized infection, representing inflammation and the body's immune response to the pathogen. Fever (choice A) is a systemic response and not specific to a localized infection. Elevated white blood cell count (choice B) can be seen in both localized and systemic infections. Chills and shivering (choice D) are more related to the body's response to fever and not specifically indicative of a localized infection.

4. Rehabilitation after illness is classified under which level of healthcare?

• A. Primary
• B. Secondary
• C. Tertiary
• D. All three

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rehabilitation after illness is classified as tertiary care. Tertiary care aims to help patients recover from illness, injuries, or disabilities, and restore their functionality. Primary care involves preventive measures and early disease detection, while secondary care focuses on diagnosis and treatment of specific conditions. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the specialized nature of rehabilitation in healthcare.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother after childbirth?

• A. To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies
• B. To treat anemia in the newborn
• C. To increase the mother's white blood cell count
• D. To prevent infection in the newborn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent the development of antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This prevents Rh sensitization, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future Rh-positive pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because RhoGAM is not used to treat anemia in the newborn, increase the mother's white blood cell count, or prevent infection in the newborn.

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