which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease ckd
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.

2. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Hand hygiene helps remove pathogens that could be transmitted through direct contact, making it a crucial practice in infection control. While using sterile gloves and disposable equipment are important in certain situations, they do not address the potential transmission of pathogens through direct contact, unlike hand hygiene. Wearing a face mask is important for respiratory precautions but may not be as effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections through direct contact.

3. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

4. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.

5. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.

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