Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high potassium
• C. Low sodium, low potassium
• D. High calcium, low phosphorus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.

2. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

3. At the first dressing change, the PN tells the client that her mastectomy incision is healing well, but the client refuses to look at the incision and refuses to talk about it. Which response by the PN to the client's silence is best?

• A. You will feel better when you see that the incision is not as bad as you may think.
• B. It's OK if you don't want to look or talk about the mastectomy. I will be available when you're ready.
• C. Part of recovery is accepting your new body image, and you will need to look at your incision.
• D. Would you like me to call another nurse to be here while I show you the wound?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and providing emotional support without pressuring them to look at the incision is important. Choice B is the best response as it respects the client's emotional readiness to confront their body image changes. The client's autonomy and emotional needs are prioritized in this response. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings by assuming the incision is not as bad as they think, potentially dismissing their emotions. Choice C is insensitive as it imposes a particular view of recovery on the client, disregarding their current emotional state. Choice D may escalate the situation by suggesting the need for another nurse, which could make the client feel uncomfortable and pressured.

4. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
• C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.

5. A client confides to the nurse that the client has been substituting herbal supplements for high blood pressure instead of the prescribed medication. How should the nurse respond first?

• A. Ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication
• B. Reinforce that the healthcare provider prescribed the medication for a reason
• C. Have the client use their own words to describe complications of high blood pressure
• D. Point out the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication. Understanding the client's rationale for using herbal supplements allows the nurse to explore any misconceptions and provide education on the importance of the prescribed medication. Choice B is incorrect because simply reinforcing the prescription does not address the client's concerns or reasons for using herbal supplements. Choice C does not directly address the immediate concern of the client substituting medication with herbal supplements. Choice D focuses on the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements, which is not the most appropriate initial response.

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