HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
2. An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?
- A. Plan to have the same nursing staff provide care for the client whenever possible
- B. Describe the activities available to residents and encourage him to choose the ones he prefers
- C. Encourage the client to remain on the unit for three weeks until he is oriented to his new surroundings
- D. Introduce the client to the nursing staff and other residents as soon as possible
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer’s disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.
3. A client post-thyroidectomy is being monitored for signs of hypocalcemia. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse be most concerned about?
- A. Tingling in the hands and around the mouth.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the hands and around the mouth. This symptom is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently damaged during surgery. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are not specific to hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice D) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than hypocalcemia.
4. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?
- A. Amikacin
- B. Moxifloxacin
- C. Rifabutin
- D. Cycloserine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.
5. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?
- A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
- B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
- C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
- D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.
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