HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
2. A client presents to the office with complaints of swelling in the legs, chills, and shortness of breath. During auscultation of the chest, a heart murmur is heard. The client's blood culture reveals a microorganism in the blood. When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called
- A. Bacteremia
- B. Sepsis
- C. Septicemia
- D. Parasitic infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called bacteremia, which refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, as indicated by a positive blood culture. If not appropriately treated, bacteremia can progress to septicemia, also known as sepsis. Sepsis is a severe and life-threatening response to an infection, characterized by systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction. Parasitic infections involve pathogens other than bacteria and are not directly related to the scenario described.
3. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
- A. Calcium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
4. What is a priority when providing care for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy?
- A. Keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry
- B. Providing regular oral hygiene
- C. Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring a patent airway
- D. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy, the priority is to monitor for signs of infection and ensure a patent airway. This is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction or infection. While keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry is important for overall care, it is not the highest priority when compared to ensuring a patent airway. Providing regular oral hygiene is essential for the patient's comfort but takes a secondary role to maintaining airway patency. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe may be beneficial but is not as critical as monitoring for infection and keeping the airway clear.
5. At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?
- A. 4
- B. 6
- C. 8
- D. 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.
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