which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease ckd
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.

2. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.

3. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

4. The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.

5. A Native American client is admitted with a diagnosis of psychosis not otherwise specified. The client's family seems to regard the client's hallucinations as normal. What assessment can be made?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because the family may interpret the client's hallucinations through their cultural lens, potentially viewing them as normal or spiritually significant. Understanding and acknowledging the cultural context is essential for providing culturally sensitive care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while talking circles and seeking guidance from a medicine man may be culturally relevant interventions in some contexts, the priority in this situation is to recognize and respect the family's perspective on the client's hallucinations.

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