HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. Which of the following components of nutrition has a primary function of helping with tissue growth and repair?
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Vitamin E
- C. Protein
- D. Fat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Protein is the correct answer as it is essential for tissue growth and repair. Proteins are composed of amino acids, the building blocks of body tissues. While vitamins D and E have important roles in the body, they are not primarily responsible for tissue growth and repair. Fats are crucial for various bodily functions, like providing energy, but they are not the primary component involved in tissue growth and repair.
2. What dietary considerations must the nurse keep in mind for a patient who is an Orthodox Jew?
- A. They can eat any food unless it is Yom Kippur
- B. They cannot mix meat and dairy
- C. They cannot eat meat on Ash Wednesday
- D. They are vegetarian
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Orthodox Jews follow dietary laws (Kashrut) that prohibit mixing meat and dairy products in the same meal. This restriction is known as 'not mixing milk and meat.' Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because being an Orthodox Jew does not mean they can eat any food unless it is Yom Kippur, avoid meat on Ash Wednesday, or are necessarily vegetarian.
3. What is the most common sign of a localized infection?
- A. Fever
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Redness, warmth, and swelling at the site of infection
- D. Chills and shivering
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Redness, warmth, and swelling at the site of infection. These signs are typical indications of a localized infection, representing inflammation and the body's immune response to the pathogen. Fever (choice A) is a systemic response and not specific to a localized infection. Elevated white blood cell count (choice B) can be seen in both localized and systemic infections. Chills and shivering (choice D) are more related to the body's response to fever and not specifically indicative of a localized infection.
4. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
- A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
- B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
- C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
- D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
5. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?
- A. Obtain emergency help
- B. Feel for a carotid pulse
- C. Bring a glucometer to the room
- D. Check the blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.
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