Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following assessments should the nurse make before delegating care?

• A. Is the client's family present so the AP can show them how to turn the client?
• B. Has data been collected about specific client needs related to turning?
• C. Does the AP have time to change the client's central IV line dressing after turning her?
• D. Has the AP checked the client's pain level prior to turning her?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before delegating the task of bathing and turning a client with end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP), the nurse must assess specific client needs related to turning. This assessment ensures that the delegated care is tailored to the client's individual requirements, promoting safe and effective care. Option A is incorrect because the presence of the client's family is not directly related to assessing the client's specific needs for turning. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a different task (changing the central IV line dressing) and is not directly related to the turning assessment. Option D is incorrect as checking the client's pain level, although important, is not directly related to the specific needs related to turning the client.

2. You are working on a pediatric unit. Which toy or other diversional item or activity is most appropriate for your 18-month-old patient?

• A. Story books
• B. Beach balls
• C. An interactive play session with other children less than 2 years of age
• D. Pickup sticks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A beach ball is appropriate for an 18-month-old as it is safe and can help with motor skills development. Choice A, storybooks, may not be suitable for this age group due to limited attention span. Choice C involves interaction with other children which may not always be feasible in a healthcare setting. Choice D, pickup sticks, poses a choking hazard and is not suitable for toddlers.

3. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

4. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?

• A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
• B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
• C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
• D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.

5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

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