HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?
- A. Risk for aspiration
- B. Impaired physical mobility
- C. Disturbed sensory perception
- D. Interrupted family processes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.
2. A client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant needs protective measures. What precaution should the nurse plan for this client?
- A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction nearby.
- B. Place the client in a private room with positive pressure airflow.
- C. Restrict all visitors from seeing the client.
- D. Provide a HEPA filter in the client's room.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to minimize exposure to potential sources of infection. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially in areas with construction or other potential risks, helps protect the client's compromised immune system. Positive pressure airflow rooms are typically used for clients with airborne infections, not for those post-stem cell transplant. Restricting all visitors may contribute to the client's well-being, but it is not a direct protective measure against infection. While HEPA filters can be beneficial in maintaining air quality, wearing a mask when exposed to external risks is a more targeted and immediate protective measure in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?
- A. Assessment
- B. Situation
- C. Background
- D. Recommendation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.
4. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
- C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
- D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
5. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
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