Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

A. Serotonin

B. Dopamine

C. GABA

D. Acetylcholine

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?

• A. Using the Z-track method
• B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
• C. Not massaging the injection site
• D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.

Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?

• A. Withhold the medication and notify the charge nurse
• B. Give the medication and document the heart rate
• C. Withhold the medication until the next scheduled dose
• D. Request the charge nurse to administer the medication

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.

A client confides to the nurse that the client has been substituting herbal supplements for high blood pressure instead of the prescribed medication. How should the nurse respond first?

• A. Ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication
• B. Reinforce that the healthcare provider prescribed the medication for a reason
• C. Have the client use their own words to describe complications of high blood pressure
• D. Point out the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication. Understanding the client's rationale for using herbal supplements allows the nurse to explore any misconceptions and provide education on the importance of the prescribed medication. Choice B is incorrect because simply reinforcing the prescription does not address the client's concerns or reasons for using herbal supplements. Choice C does not directly address the immediate concern of the client substituting medication with herbal supplements. Choice D focuses on the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements, which is not the most appropriate initial response.

A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.