Nursing Elites

1. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

2. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

3. A client who is post-operative from a carotid endarterectomy is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Assess the client’s airway and respiratory status.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client’s airway and respiratory status (Choice B). Difficulty swallowing after carotid endarterectomy could indicate swelling or nerve damage affecting swallowing, which may compromise the airway. Assessing the airway and respiratory status is crucial to ensure the client's ability to breathe. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not the priority as the primary concern is airway patency. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) can help with swallowing difficulties but does not address the immediate risk to the airway. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is contraindicated if there is a risk of compromised airway due to swallowing difficulties.

4. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?

• A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
• B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
• C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
• D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.

5. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?

• A. High-protein diet
• B. Frequent repositioning
• C. Immobility
• D. Active range of motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.

Similar Questions