Nursing Elites

1. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

2. The nurse observes a UAP performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a flat side-lying position with an emesis basin on a towel under the chin. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the procedure and tell the UAP to place the client in a Fowler's position
• B. Praise the UAP for doing the oral hygiene but encourage family participation
• C. Tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely
• D. Enroll the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely for oral care. Placing an unconscious client in a side-lying position helps prevent aspiration, and having an emesis basin under the chin is appropriate to catch any fluids. Therefore, the nurse should acknowledge that the UAP is performing the procedure correctly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Placing the client in a Fowler's position is not necessary for this procedure as the client is already positioned safely. Praise and encouragement for family participation are important aspects but not the immediate action needed in this scenario. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class is not warranted as the current procedure is being performed correctly.

3. Which statement by a mature adult client with advanced prostate cancer best indicates that he has reached a level of acceptance of his prognosis?

• A. I don't have any use for those who say the disease is going to win
• B. I've found the support I need from my faith and family
• C. I think I've had this disease for a long time, but the doctor did not find it
• D. I understand that this is a disease that occurs mostly in older men

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because finding support in faith and family is a common way for individuals to cope with serious illnesses and come to terms with their prognosis. This statement indicates that the client has found a source of strength and comfort to deal with their situation. Choice A reflects defiance rather than acceptance. Choice C suggests denial or disbelief in the diagnosis. Choice D shows factual knowledge about the disease but does not necessarily indicate acceptance of the prognosis.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client whose urine drug screen is positive for cocaine. Which behavior is this client likely to exhibit during cocaine withdrawal?

• A. Elevated energy level
• B. Euphoria
• C. High self-esteem
• D. Powerful craving for more

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Powerful craving for more. During cocaine withdrawal, individuals often experience intense cravings for the drug, along with symptoms such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety. These cravings can be overpowering and lead to a strong desire to seek out more cocaine to alleviate the withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as elevated energy level, euphoria, and high self-esteem are more associated with the effects of cocaine rather than withdrawal symptoms. Withdrawal from cocaine is characterized by the opposite, such as fatigue, low mood, and intense cravings.

5. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Sickle cell anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

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