Nursing Elites

1. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

• A. Before meals and snacks
• B. Before bedtime
• C. Early in the morning
• D. After meals and snacks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

2. What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

• A. Poor cough and gag reflex
• B. The gestational age at birth
• C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
• D. The sex of the infant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.

3. In a disaster area, a nurse assesses an adult male with partial-thickness burns on his lower legs, approximately 10% of his lower body. Which color of triage tag should the nurse place on this client?

• A. Yellow.
• B. Black.
• C. Red.
• D. Green.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A yellow triage tag should be placed on the client with partial-thickness burns covering 10% of his lower body. Yellow tags indicate delayed treatment, suitable for serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening. Black tags are used for deceased individuals, red tags for immediate treatment of life-threatening injuries, and green tags for minor injuries.

4. What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?

• A. An IQ of 75 or less
• B. Subaverage functioning
• C. An IQ of 70 or less
• D. Onset before 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

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