Nursing Elites

1. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

3. What does the acronym ICD stand for in medical terminology?

• A. International Classification of Diseases
• B. Internal Care Documentation
• C. Intensive Care Division
• D. Integrated Care Department

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Classification of Diseases. The ICD is a system used worldwide to classify and code various health conditions and diseases. This system helps in standardizing the documentation and coding of diseases, which is essential for epidemiology, research, and healthcare management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the widely recognized meaning of the acronym ICD in medical terminology.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

5. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is experiencing ascites. The nurse should implement which of the following interventions?

• A. Restrict fluid intake
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Encourage high-protein diet
• D. Administer diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Ascites, the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, is a common complication of cirrhosis. Diuretics are the primary intervention to manage ascites by promoting the excretion of excess fluid from the body, thus reducing abdominal swelling. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) would not be appropriate as it may lead to dehydration. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is contraindicated as it can worsen fluid retention. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice C) is not directly related to managing ascites.

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