Nursing Elites

1. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

2. The nurse is planning a nutrition class for a group of high school students emphasizing the goals for nutrition from Healthy People 2020. Which meal selection provides the best choices in meeting these goals?

• A. pasta with cheese sauce, garlic butter bread, and vegetable juice drink
• B. a 6-oz pork chop, creamed peas, cheese sauce on potatoes, coffee
• C. vegetable lasagna, lettuce salad, a whole wheat roll, 8 oz of 2% milk
• D. bacon, lettuce, tomato sandwich, whole grain chips, 8 oz. of whole milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because vegetable lasagna, lettuce salad, and a whole wheat roll with 2% milk align with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020. These choices provide a balanced meal with vegetables, whole grains, and dairy, promoting a healthier dietary pattern. Choices A, B, and D do not offer as comprehensive a selection of food groups or as healthy options as choice C, making them less aligned with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020.

3. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

4. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

5. When caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome, which action should the nurse give the highest priority?

• A. Monitor intake and output
• B. Provide good skin care
• C. Assess level of consciousness
• D. Assist with range of motion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is crucial when caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome. Changes in neurological status can indicate deterioration of the condition, necessitating immediate medical attention. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing the child's level of consciousness. Providing good skin care and assisting with range of motion are also important aspects of care but take a lower priority than assessing the child's neurological status in this critical condition.

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