Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

2. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?

• A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
• B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
• C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
• D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.

3. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
• B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.

4. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?

• A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
• B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
• C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
• D. Protect skin from injury and bruising

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.

5. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?

• A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
• B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
• C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
• D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.

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