HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?
- A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning
- B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
- C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
- D. A female client who is overzealous with her intake of simple carbohydrates
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.
2. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?
- A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
- B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
- C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
- D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.
3. The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?
- A. One day after a permanent pacemaker insertion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a pacer rhythm.
- B. Two hours after undergoing cardioversion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a normal sinus rhythm.
- C. A client started on carvedilol the previous day for heart failure has controlled atrial fibrillation.
- D. Four hours after admission, a client with syncope shows complete heart block on the telemetry monitor.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.
4. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client’s statements?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram.
- B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure.
- C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends.
- D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is recommended because breasts are least tender and swollen at this point, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, it is not the immediate action needed based on the client's statements. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE technique timing needs adjustment rather than an in-depth review by a nurse practitioner. Choice D is incorrect because the client should modify the timing of the BSE for better effectiveness.
5. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been “trying to start a new business†and is “too busy to eat.†He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Disturbed sleep pattern
- C. Disturbed thought processes
- D. Imbalanced nutrition
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the priority in this case as the patient has lost a significant amount of weight and is neglecting self-care, such as bathing and eating properly. The weight loss indicates a serious issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further health complications. While self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are also concerns for this patient, addressing the imbalanced nutrition takes precedence due to the potential impact on the patient's physical health. Neglecting proper nutrition can lead to serious complications, so it is crucial to address this issue first.
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