Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?

• A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
• B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
• C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
• D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.

2. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

• A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
• B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

3. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid taking folic acid supplements
• B. Report any signs of infection immediately
• C. Limit fluid intake to prevent edema
• D. Increase intake of high-calcium foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections. Reporting signs of infection promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding folic acid supplements is not recommended because methotrexate can lead to folate deficiency, so supplementation may be necessary. There is no direct correlation between fluid intake limitation and methotrexate use. Increasing high-calcium foods is not specifically related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.

5. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
• B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
• C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
• D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.

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