Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?

• A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
• B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
• C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
• D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.

2. A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Facial puffiness and periorbital edema
• B. Hematocrit of 30%
• C. Cold and dry skin
• D. Further decline in LOC

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.

3. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarseness and weak voice
• B. Calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL (2.0 mmol/L)
• C. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Difficulty swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing can indicate swelling or hematoma formation, which may compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention. Hoarseness and a weak voice are expected post-thyroidectomy due to manipulation of the laryngeal nerves but do not require immediate intervention. A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and may not require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 110 beats per minute may be elevated due to stress or pain postoperatively, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway.

4. The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?

• A. Chest physiotherapy
• B. Mucus-drying agents
• C. Prevention of diarrhea
• D. Insulin therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

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