Nursing Elites

1. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement during the initial interview for a client who is admitted to the mental health unit?

• A. Establish rapport in each phase of the nurse-client relationship.
• B. Determine the client's ability to communicate effectively.
• C. Reflect on previous psychiatric interviews the nurse has performed.
• D. Ensure data is collected and recorded in a systematic sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Establishing rapport is the most important action during the initial interview for a client admitted to the mental health unit. Building rapport helps create a trusting relationship between the nurse and the client, which is essential for effective communication and the success of the therapeutic relationship. Choice B, determining the client's ability to communicate effectively, is important but secondary to establishing rapport. Choice C, reflecting on previous psychiatric interviews, is not as critical during the initial interview with a new client. Choice D, ensuring data collection and recording in a systematic sequence, is important but comes after establishing rapport to foster a therapeutic environment.

2. Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Apply vest or extremity restraints.
• B. Give an alpha-adrenergic blocker.
• C. Provide a diet high in protein and calories.
• D. Prepare the environment to prevent self-injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.

3. A male client with delirium becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night. The best initial nursing intervention is to:

• A. Move the client next to the nurse's station
• B. Use an indirect light source and turn off the television
• C. Keep the television and a soft light on during the night
• D. Play soft music during the night, and maintain a well-lit room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial nursing intervention for a male client with delirium who becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night is to use an indirect light source and turn off the television. This approach helps to reduce stimulation and confusion, aiding in the client's orientation and comfort. Moving the client next to the nurse's station (Choice A) may not address the root cause of disorientation and could disrupt the client's routine. Keeping the television and a soft light on (Choice C) may further contribute to the client's confusion. Playing soft music and maintaining a well-lit room (Choice D) may not be as effective in reducing stimulation and promoting orientation as using an indirect light source and turning off the television.

4. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

5. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Constipation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.

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