HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?
- A. Move to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers.
- B. Walk with the client to the cafeteria and star as he eats lunch.
- C. Request a full lunch tray from the dietary department.
- D. Encourage the spouse to eat lunch with the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.
2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.
3. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?
- A. "I understand now that my negative thoughts are not always true."
- B. "I still feel down, but I am able to go to work."
- C. "I have stopped taking my antidepressant medication."
- D. "I avoid situations that make me feel anxious."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.
4. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?
- A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
- B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
- C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
- D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.
5. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's vital signs regularly.
- B. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- C. Offer the client frequent, high-calorie snacks.
- D. Weigh the client daily at the same time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh the client daily at the same time. Daily weights are crucial in monitoring the client's nutritional status and guiding treatment for weight restoration in anorexia nervosa. Monitoring vital signs is important but weighing the client daily takes precedence in this situation. Encouraging group therapy and offering high-calorie snacks are important aspects of treatment but do not take priority over monitoring the client's weight.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access