HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?
- A. Move to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers.
- B. Walk with the client to the cafeteria and star as he eats lunch.
- C. Request a full lunch tray from the dietary department.
- D. Encourage the spouse to eat lunch with the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.
2. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
- A. Tell me what you think should happen.
- B. How serious was the collision?
- C. What do you think you should do?
- D. Call for transportation to the hospital.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.
3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
- B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
- C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.
4. An emergency department nurse is caring for an adult client who is a victim of family violence. Which priority instruction would be included in the discharge instructions?
- A. Information regarding shelters
- B. Instructions regarding calling the police
- C. Instructions regarding self-defense classes
- D. Explaining the importance of leaving the violent situation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information regarding shelters. Providing information about shelters is crucial in cases of family violence as it ensures the client has a safe place to go after discharge, prioritizing their immediate safety. Option B, instructions regarding calling the police, may be necessary but ensuring a safe place to stay is more immediate. Option C, instructions regarding self-defense classes, may not be appropriate as the priority is to ensure the client's safety rather than teaching self-defense. Option D, explaining the importance of leaving the violent situation, is relevant but providing information on immediate shelter options is the priority.
5. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
- B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
- C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
- D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.
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