a male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days he paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to h
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.

2. The RN is providing care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen. Which approach should the RN use when changing this client's dressing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner is crucial when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted injuries. This approach helps build trust, reduces feelings of shame or guilt, and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because while detailed explanations may be necessary, the focus should be on the non-judgmental approach. Choice C is inappropriate as it may come across as accusatory or threatening, potentially worsening the client's emotional state. Choice D is not the best option as the RN should strive to handle the situation themselves in a supportive and empathetic manner.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

4. A male adolescent is admitted with bipolar disorder after being released from jail for assault with a deadly weapon. When the nurse asks the teen to identify his reason for the assault, he replies, 'Because he made me mad!' Which goal is best for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? The client will

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's response indicates poor impulse control, a common issue in individuals with bipolar disorder. The most critical goal for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care is to help the client control impulsive actions toward self and others. This goal is essential for preventing harmful behaviors and mitigating the social consequences associated with impulsivity. While outlining methods for managing anger, verbalizing feelings when anger occurs, and recognizing consequences for behaviors exhibited are important aspects of therapy, they do not directly address the urgent need to control impulsive behavior in this case.

5. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

Similar Questions

A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
A nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and less communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

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