Nursing Elites

1. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Diplopia (double vision)
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Weakness in the legs
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with myasthenia gravis, difficulty swallowing is the most crucial symptom to report to the healthcare provider. This is because it can lead to aspiration, a severe complication in these clients. Diplopia (double vision) and weakness in the legs are common symptoms of myasthenia gravis but are not as immediately dangerous as difficulty swallowing. Fatigue is also a common symptom in myasthenia gravis but does not pose the same risk of aspiration as difficulty swallowing.

3. A male client with muscular dystrophy fell in his home and is admitted with a right hip fracture. His right foot is cool, with palpable pedal pulses. Lungs are coarse with diminished bibasilar breath sounds. Vital signs are temperature 101 degrees F, heart rate 128 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 122/82. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Obtain oxygen saturation level.
• B. Encourage incentive spirometry.
• C. Assess lower extremity circulation
• D. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an antipyretic is the most important intervention. The client presents with an elevated temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, indicating a fever. Lowering the temperature with an antipyretic is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, altered mental status, and increased oxygen demand. While assessing lower extremity circulation and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the elevated temperature takes priority in this scenario. Incentive spirometry may be beneficial but is not the priority compared to managing the fever.

4. A client with Cushing's Syndrome is recovering from an elective laparoscopic procedure. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Irregular apical pulse
• B. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen
• C. Quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing
• D. Pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular apical pulse. In a client recovering from a laparoscopic procedure with Cushing's Syndrome, an irregular apical pulse can be indicative of a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as an irregular apical pulse. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen may be related to Cushing's Syndrome, a quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing can be managed with appropriate wound care, and pitting ankle edema may be expected postoperatively but does not require immediate intervention.

5. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

• A. Cognitive impairment
• B. Altered growth and development
• C. Faulty dentition
• D. Physical abilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

Similar Questions