Nursing Elites

1. What role does a community health nurse play in disaster management?

• A. Providing direct patient care
• B. Conducting research on disaster impacts
• C. Coordinating emergency response efforts
• D. Developing new healthcare policies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Community health nurses are primarily responsible for coordinating emergency response efforts during disasters. This involves organizing and implementing strategies to address the health needs of the community in crisis situations. Providing direct patient care (Choice A) is often carried out by other healthcare professionals such as doctors and paramedics during disasters. Conducting research on disaster impacts (Choice B) is important for understanding the effects of disasters but is not the primary role of a community health nurse. Developing new healthcare policies (Choice D) is typically the responsibility of policymakers and public health officials rather than community health nurses.

2. In a well-child clinic, the nurse examines many children daily. Which of the following toddlers requires further follow-up?

• A. A 13-month-old who is unable to walk
• B. A 20-month-old who is only using 2 and 3 word sentences
• C. A 24-month-old who cries during examination
• D. A 30-month-old who is only drinking from a sip cup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a 30-month-old should have developed the skill to drink from a regular cup by this age. Drinking from a sip cup at this stage may indicate a delay in development. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning as they can be within the range of normal development. A 13-month-old not walking yet, a 20-month-old using 2 and 3 word sentences, and a 24-month-old crying during examination are all behaviors that can fall within the spectrum of typical development for their respective ages.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

4. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

5. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

• A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
• B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
• C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
• D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

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