HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. In providing comprehensive family health care, the nurse utilizes four (4) basic processes. These are listed in the order in which they are carried out as follows:
- A. assessment, planning, intervention, and evaluation
- B. assessment, intervention, planning, and evaluation
- C. planning, assessment, intervention, and evaluation
- D. planning, intervention, evaluation, and assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the basic processes in providing comprehensive family health care is assessment, planning, intervention, and evaluation. Assessment is the first step to gather information, followed by planning to set goals and strategies, then intervention to implement the plan, and finally evaluation to assess the outcomes. Choice A is correct as it follows this logical sequence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct order of these essential processes in nursing care.
2. In order to determine what specific health teaching should be appropriate for the people of this municipality, which of the following is the best method to use?
- A. interviewing midwives
- B. reviewing records and reports
- C. studying knowledge, attitudes, and practices of the people
- D. reviewing health statistics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Studying knowledge, attitudes, and practices of the people is the best method to determine appropriate health teaching for a community. This approach provides valuable insights into the specific needs, beliefs, and behaviors of the population, allowing for tailored and effective health education interventions. Interviewing midwives may offer some insights, but focusing on the broader community is more comprehensive. Reviewing records and reports can provide historical data but may not capture current community needs as effectively as studying current knowledge, attitudes, and practices. Reviewing health statistics is important but may not provide the detailed understanding of community perceptions and behaviors that directly impact health education planning.
3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?
- A. Auditory gurgling
- B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
- C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
- D. Frequent dry coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.
4. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?
- A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
- B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
- C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
- D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.
5. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?
- A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Insertion of a chest tube
- C. Oxygen therapy
- D. Assisted ventilation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.
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